Quick rules question. If someone is wearing 1-Armor, and gets hit with a 0-Harm or S-Harm weapon, do they roll the harm move at -1?
Quick rules question.
Quick rules question.
3 thoughts on “Quick rules question.”
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Quick rules question.
Quick rules question. If someone is wearing 1-Armor, and gets hit with a 0-Harm or S-Harm weapon, do they roll the harm move at -1?
Comments are closed.
Page 15 under Harm Clocks says they still roll the Harm move even when the Harm clock doesn’t change due to stun damage from 0-harm or S-harm.. The Harm move says take the Armour value from the Harm inflicted, fill in the Harm clock equal to the Harm remaining (after reducing it for armour) and roll harm suffered.
So for 0-harm and Armour 1 the harm is technically reduced by 1 and Harm rolled. But the clock cannot go in reverse so 15:00 is the lowest you can set the Harm clock to. That would mean you roll without adjusting the value of the roll.
As S-harm weapons are mostly taser-type guns or gas/incapacitating grenades and gel rounds they aren’t going to be that dangerous if you do a straight roll in terms of results anyway. Worst case is rolling 10+ on a Harm move and falling unconscious
There are no 0-harm weapons actually listed in the core rules.
If someone’s armor reduces the Harm they took to zero, they still make the Harm move. They add the amount of Harm they suffered, which in this case is zero. So they roll the Harm move at +0.
Ok, that makes it clearer, thank you.